Why The Law - Week 7

Galatians 3:13-29

Note: The study related to these questions may be found at Catholic Exchange. Please go to their site for the complete material concerning this study. Below are my thoughts on the questions presented for the given study (Please see disclaimer at bottom).

Christ Redeems The Cursed

Read Gal. 3:13-14
1. At the end of the last lesson, we could see that a tension had developed between God s promise of blessing to Abraham and the problem presented by the Law of Moses. In these verses, Paul refers to the redemptive work of Christ. Why is this such a logical place for him to mention it?
(a) This is a logical place because Paul ties together Christ's redemptive work with the promise made to Abraham. Also, to point out that by fulfilling this promise, we are free from the curse of the law.

2. Read Deut. 21:22-23, which Paul quotes in vs. 13. The apostles regularly referred to the crucifixion as Christ being hung on a tree (see Acts 5:30; 10:39). Why is this quote from the Old Testament especially powerful to further Paul's line of argument?
(a) From the Book of Deuteronomy:

"And if a man has committed a crime punishable by death and he is put to death, and you hang him on a tree, his body shall not remain all night upon the tree, but you shall bury him the same day, for a hanged man is accursed by God; you shall not defile your land which the LORD your God gives you for an inheritance. (Deut 21:22-23, RSV)

This juxtaposes the death of a criminal with death suffered by Christ, who was blameless.

3. Paul again refers to the blessing of Abraham in vs. 14. How does he describe the blessing that the Gentiles will receive?
(a) As a blessing received by faith from the Spirit.

4. You can see that throughout the first half of chapter 3, Paul has shifted attention away from the Law of Moses to the promises God made to Abraham. Why?
(a) In order to make his point that it is not the law that saves, but rather the redemtive work of Christ, which was first promised to us through Abraham.

In this next part of chapter 3, Paul aims to demonstrate that what we are beginning to suspect is actually true the covenant God made with Abraham is superior to the covenant He made with Moses.

The Law and The Promise

Read Gal. 3:15-18
[Note: Before you can answer questions on this passage, you need to know some textual information about the choice of words in this translation (other translations may differ). First, in vs. 15, the text should read covenant, not will. It is clear from the context that will is a poor reading, because Paul is writing about a document or agreement that cannot be changed once it's ratified. That would only be true of a covenant; a will can be changed again and again. Second, in vs. 16, Paul is quoting Gen. 12:7, in which God makes a promise to Abraham and his descendants. The word in Hebrew is like the English word offspring. It can be either singular or plural. You might like to see a comment from The Navarre Bible on this verse: In Gen. 12:7 this offspring has a plural, collective sense. In fact there is no contradiction, given that Christ is the Head of the Church and forms one single body with it (cf. 1 Cor. 12:12; Col. 1:18). That is why St. Irenaeus says that the Church is the offspring of Abraham (cf. Against heresies, 32,2) and St. Augustine adds that by presenting Christ as the offspring of Abraham, all Christians are being included in him (The Navarre Bible: St. Paul's Epistles to the Romans and Galatians, p. 189)].

5. Paul has been working hard to show the difference between the covenant God made with Abraham, which was given in a promise, and the covenant God made with Moses, which required performance. One brings a curse and one brings a blessing. One takes precedence over the other. Which one, and why, according to these verses?
(a) The covenant of Abraham takes precedence over the covenant of Moses precisely because it was made prior to the other. Since God will not "annul" a covenant He has made, then Abraham's covenant must supercede the covenant of Moses.

6. The promise God made to Abraham was to him and his offspring (see note above). That implies that Abraham will bequeath this blessing to his sons and that they will pass it along as an inheritance (which is exactly what the descendants of Abraham did). Why does Paul suggest that it is not possible for this inheritance (the blessing Abraham bequeathed to his offspring) to come to the Jews through the Law of Moses?
(a) Because if the "inheritance is by the law, it is no longer by promise". That is, salvation must come through faith and not the works of the law.

7. Paul has kept us focused on the promise of God to Abraham as the source of blessing (being pleasing to Him) for both Jew and Gentile. On the basis of this promise of God to him, Pope John Paul II has compared Abraham to the Virgin Mary. How are they similar? A natural question arises: If God always intended to do something wonderful for us based on a promise (grace), why the law? This is a very important question in Paul's argument. If one has followed carefully what he has been saying, this becomes a pivotal issue. Why did God make that covenant with Moses? If that law cannot justify us, what does it do?
(a) Both Abraham and Mary were obedient to the will of God and both were instrumental in God's salvific plan. Mary through her role as the woman alluded to in Genesis 3:15 whose "seed" would bruise the head of the serpent. Abraham through his covenant with God that promised salvation to his offspring. (b) God made the covenant with Moses in order to provide discipline for his people. (c) While it is true that the law in and of itself cannot justify, it can point to eh One who can:

"This divine pedagogy appears especially in the gift of the Law.[Cf. Ex 19-20 ; Deut 1-11 ; Deut 29-30 .] God gave the letter of the Law as a 'pedagogue' to lead his people towards Christ.[Gal 3:24 .] But the Law's powerlessness to save man deprived of the divine 'likeness,' along with the growing awareness of sin that it imparts,[Cf. Rom 3:20 .] enkindles a desire for the Holy Spirit. The lamentations of the Psalms bear witness to this." (CCC 708)

Why The Law?

Read Gal. 3:19-24
8. Paul says the law was given because of transgressions. What do you think that means?
(a) This is reference to the Israelites failure to honor God after He freed them from the slavery to the Egyptians. The Israelites, instead of worshipping and thanking God, worshipped a golden calf, a pagan god from Egypt.

9. In the last part of vs. 19, Paul returns to the comparison between the Mosaic covenant and the one made with Abraham. He says the covenant with Moses was ordained by angels through an intermediary. According to Jewish tradition, the Law was promulgated on Mount Sinai through angels (see Acts 7:53). Who is the intermediary? What does Paul say is implicit in the presence of an intermediary when a covenant is being made, in vs. 20?
(a) From the Acts of the Apostles:

Which of the prophets did not your fathers persecute? And they killed those who announced beforehand the coming of the Righteous One, whom you have now betrayed and murdered, you who received the law as delivered by angels and did not keep it." (Acts 7:52-53, RSV)

Moses was the intermediary. (b) Paul says that when an intermediary is present, it is implicit that there is more than one.

10. Now Paul returns to the question about the value of the law. The best way to understand the beginning of vs. 21 is like this: Is the law in rivalry with the promises of God? Is the law a competing system for making us pleasing to God? How does Paul answer that?
(a) The law is not in rivalry with the promises of God. (b) The law is not a competing system for making us pleasing to God. (c) Paul answers this in the following way:

Is the law then against the promises of God? Certainly not; for if a law had been given which could make alive, then righteousness would indeed be by the law. (Gal 3:21, RSV)

11. What purposes did the law serve (see vss. 23, 24)?
(a) The law served as a custodian and as a restraint prior to Christ.

12. God allowed Israel to live for hundreds of years under the yoke of the Law (the Law was given to Moses in about 1400 B.C.) Does that make you ask any questions?
(a) The obvious question is why was Israel under the law for such an extensive period of time?

The Mosaic law had a function and a goal it prepared Israel for and pointed towards the Messiah, the One who would end their bondage to sin and set them free, making them heirs of Abraham's promise. Paul now turns his attention to the law's fulfillment.

Sons of God Through Faith

Read Gal. 3:25-End
13. Why does the law no longer serve as a custodian?
(a) Because the redemptive work of Christ has freed us from the need for the law. The Messiah has come, therefore we don't need the law to point to His coming.

14. What initiated the Galatians into the life of Christ (vs. 27)?
(a) Baptism initiated the Galatians into the life of Christ.

15. In vs. 28, is Paul saying that there are no differences between the various pairs he has listed? What is the point he is making?
(a) There are differences between the two, but not in how they are preceived by Christ.

16. For the Galatians who have faith, who does Paul say has become their father? What is their great heritage?
(a) Abraham has become their father. (b) The promise of salvation is their great heritage.

17. If God said, about Jesus, This is My Beloved Son in Whom I am well-pleased, and if, by your faith and baptism, you have put on Christ, then what great gift do you hold in your arms?
(a) The blessing of God.

Disclaimer: I do not wish to present myself as an expert in either theology, history, or scriptural interpretation. I am merely someone who is attempting to answer the call of Christ. The ultimate authority and interpreter of scripture is our Holy Catholic Church. If at any point I deviate from the teachings of the Church, please correct me, alfredo@nevarez.net, as this is my shortcoming and in no way meant to be an expression of my views superceding those of the Church founded by Jesus Christ.

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